Donate SIGN UP

VAT

Avatar Image
Kenben | 12:39 Mon 22nd Nov 2010 | Personal Finance
3 Answers
I took a debtor to Court for an unpaid invoice that he disputed. Shortly before the County Court appearance date he backed down and we came to an agreement that he would pay a significant sum (more than the original invoice but we'd each subsequently spent over £10k in legal fees) What is the VAT position on the amount he is now paying to me? Is it treated as Vattable or, since it has no relationship to the original sum. is it like a premium bond or lottery win and is not subject to VAT?
Thanks in anticipation
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 3 of 3rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by Kenben. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
It does relate to the original sum as if the original sum had not been owed you would not have been receiving this money. The amount that relates to the original invoice should be treated the same way as if the invoice had been paid and therest offset against the legal costs so there is a vat implication
By the way it is definately not "like a premium bond or lottery win"
hope you have good documentation on all your expenses in pursuing this...

1 to 3 of 3rss feed

Do you know the answer?

VAT

Answer Question >>