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Facetious | 22:50 Tue 08th Jan 2008 | Civil
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my friend has been saddled with a legal aid bill of 3 grand for her divorce. why is it that some have to pay and yet others don't get billed at all?
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Avatar Image bananie
because she must have got a settlement and if she did (sometimes known as a capital sum), a proportion of the legal aid (sometimes all) requires to be paid from this sum
22:52 Tue 08th Jan 2008
Avatar Image innocenti
Your friends solicitor would have told her this. Any monies received over �2500 will then make her legal aid bill repayable. Obviously this is on a percentage basis so the more she gets over the threashold then the more she would have to repay.
17:50 Wed 09th Jan 2008
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Thanks for the information - everything makes a bit more sense now.
21:30 Wed 09th Jan 2008

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