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Britain's First Male Mum

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rov1100 | 10:54 Sun 19th Feb 2012 | News
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If this person was born a female and had a sex change how is it possible to have a baby between consenting males? Don't homosexuals use a different passage?

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IVF?
<Don't homosexuals use a different passage? >

How very ignorant rov. Not all gay men have anal sex.
There is a difference between Gender Identity Disorder and homosexuality.
Oh yeah, and what Jack says!!
it's not clear from the reports how his genitals function, but he still had a uterus and that's where the baby grew. I imagine he still had a vagina too, and conception was achieved the usual way.

If he's attracted to both sexes then he's bisexual; but I've no idea how he classifies his own sex.

More anal sex among straights than gays, but then there *are* more straights than gays.
Who needs a Sun on Sunday when we have rov for such lurid headlines?
If he's like that man in America who gave birth, he's a woman that's had a haircut, taken some hormones, and started calling themselves a man. It's not particularly miraculous. Now if I got pregnant it would be.
It must be an immaculate contraption
If he/she still has a womb they must still be a woman
Calling herself a man and having a sex change (or gender reassignment or whatever other cobblers they are calling it this week) doesn't make her a man.

Cutting a dogs nuts off doesn't make it a bitch - it makes it a dog with no nuts.

She is a woman, and giving birth proves it.

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Britain's First Male Mum

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