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Technology1 min ago
downfall
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why and how did the renaissance in Europe led to the downfall of native Indians in the Americas
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I would imagine it has more to do with the discovery of America itself, Dot. One of the principal elements of the renaissance was the rediscovery by Europe of Greek mathematics through contact with Muslim Spain. Granada was a Spanish tribute state for over 200 years before its surrender in 1492. This led directly to the advances in navigation which allowed Columbus (among others) to establish the sea routes necessary for discovery and colonisation. Spain and Portugal were the principal beneficiaries of this new science establishing colonies (and a large new income stream) from South, Central and finally North America (Mexico, Florida, California and Texas). The Elizabethan impact was pretty small to start with, largely confined to piracy on the Iberians. In the course of the Spanish incursions three major civilizations pretty much ceased to be, Inca, Aztec and finally Maya. The European influx was technologically superior; the wheel, the horse, gunpowder, steel, but the twin colonialist aims, a need for economic wealth and power and the desire to spread Christianity probably were the two things that long-term spelled an end to indigenous cultures.
Sorry, I've been busy and forgot about this topic.
Dot: yes it was colonialism, not disagreeing with you there, but it wasn't Elizabethan, her being English and all and most of the colonists in this case being her enemies rather than her subjects. Also a small matter of the brunt of this colonisation having taken place before she came to the throne.
The decisions by Spain and Portugal to seek trade routes Westward and Southward was because the route East through the Med was controlled by Venice and Turkey and had clear parallels with the English decision later in the century (under Edward VI and Mary, not Elizabeth) to look North via Archangel.
fagidill: disease was a two way street - there's at least some evidence that syphilis made the return journey.
Dot: yes it was colonialism, not disagreeing with you there, but it wasn't Elizabethan, her being English and all and most of the colonists in this case being her enemies rather than her subjects. Also a small matter of the brunt of this colonisation having taken place before she came to the throne.
The decisions by Spain and Portugal to seek trade routes Westward and Southward was because the route East through the Med was controlled by Venice and Turkey and had clear parallels with the English decision later in the century (under Edward VI and Mary, not Elizabeth) to look North via Archangel.
fagidill: disease was a two way street - there's at least some evidence that syphilis made the return journey.
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