D.I.V.O.R.C.E

[chirpychirpy]

You know how, even if a wife hasn't contributed financially within a marriage, she is still entitled to half the husband's wealth and even pension if they divorce...is this also true the other way round? In other words, if a man with nothing marries a woman of means and contributes nothing financially while they're together, if they then divorce is he entitled to half her money and pension?

[sara3]

it's not strictly 50/50 either way. there are other factors such as who has the kids, that are taken into account.

[Jan1957]

I'm trying to get as much broccoli/spinach down him as I can mamya and have been reading up on other foods. He has actually been eating a bit more the last couple of days and is a bit brighter but the difficulty swallowing does put him off trying certain things. I'll have to get in some baby food. Bless him!

[Jan1957]

Oops sorry chirpy, wrong thread. The dementia must be getting worse!

[sara3]

lol!

[chirpychirpy]

I'm not talking about a marriage with kids

[tamborine]

most women of means would have a pre-nuptial - we aint stooooopid

[fredpuli47]

It's not true that the wife is entitled to half the husband's wealth but, that apart,a husband has the same rights as a wife. The only reason we don't hear of husbands getting payments is that it's usually the husband who has contributed most to the 'matrimonial property'. But such cases do occur. I know of one where the husband was an MP and yet got property which the wife alone had acquired and owned transferred to him. ( He can't have been fiddling his expenses enough ! )

[lotsafun]

ive always thought that when you marry someone then thats it everything is split in half, afterall marriage is a partnership.