Translations of the Bible

[commonsense]

Why was the Bible translated by the early 'church', using both the Hebrew and Coptic meanings?
If you translate it all into one language it tells a completely different view of Christianity.

[Clanad]

I'm probably not understanding the intent of your question, but Coptic didn't become a language in itself until about 200AD and ceased as a language used in every day life by about 1100AD. It wasn't in use to have been applicable in the Old Covenant, since that Covenant was written in Hebrew exclusively, and completed by ca. 500BC... Translations of writings of the New Covenenat into the Coptic language did occur after Mark the Evangelist's introduction of Christianity into Egypt soon after the resurrection of Yeshua, but examples extant today are identical to others of the era, which are identical to the ones in use today...

[commonsense]

Interesting! Im reading a book at the moment and it has examples of verse from Paul and Acts of the Apostles etc, showing the translation of certain words as coptic and others as hebrew, giving it a completely different meaning. Its called The Jesus Mysteries by Timothy Freke and Peter Gandy, wold love if you could read it and tell me your opinions on it.