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flashpig | 11:42 Wed 12th Jan 2005 | Phrases & Sayings
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In the paper on monday something struck me as odd. Some things were being described, it might have been books or plays or something, and then it said 'but none is ...(something or other, I can't remember)'.

It just struck me as odd because I always say 'none are', and I ended up having a debate about whether none was a plural or a singular.

The thing is I have a faint memory of someone describing some presriptive grammar thing where they were saying that none is a certain something, only unhelpfully I can't remember what that was, plus I am a vivid dreamer so might have made the whole thing up.

Anyway, 'none is' 'none are', which is (or are) right?

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'None' is really singular and so should have a singular verb such as 'is' to, accompany it. It comes from the Old English words 'ne', meaning 'not'. and 'an', meaning 'one'. Accordingly, just as you would say "One is...", so you should say "None is..."

Good grief! What happened to my punctuation? Three mistakes in four lines! Dreadful. Here's what it was supposed to say:

'None' is really singular and so should have a singular verb, such as 'is', to accompany it. It comes from the Old English words 'ne', meaning 'not', and 'an', meaning 'one'. Accordingly, just as you would say "One is...", so you should say "None is..."

Cheers.

Actually, Flash, I was a bit over-restrictive in my answers yesterday, because there are occasions when it is permissible to use 'none' in the plural. It depends on the surrounding words/concepts to some extent...

a. "I have enjoyed many books, but none have given me as much pleasure as James Lee Burke's."

b. "None of the applicants were suitable for the vacancies."

In 'a' above, I refer to a writer who has produced several books all of which I enjoyed. In 'b' above, there were clearly several positions vacant but all remained so.

Basically, a singular verb should be used with 'none' wherever possible - on the basis I outlined yesterday - but a plural verb may be used where clear plurality is involved.

Cheers and my apologies for the original restriction.

 

None is generally plural, for example

I have six eggs, none are brown.

as opposed to

I have an egg, it is not brown.

I understood "none" to be a contraction of "not one". Therefore, none is always singular.
Landie's example would then be "I have 6 eggs, not one is brown". The same would also apply to Quizmonsters plural examples, where "none" must be supported by the singular verb.
Obviously, I have no idea whether Landie and Ess Jay are American or not, but I can assure them that my earlier answers "tell it like it is" as far as British English is concerned...ie use singular verbs with 'none' wherever possible but plural verbs where it is abundantly clear that the significance of the situation is plural. End of story.
If none is a contraction of 'not one' it must mean two or more.

That's a peculiar bit of mathematical reasoning, Landie! A half, a quarter an eighth and a host of other fractions could easily be described as "not one" as well, couldn't they?

But never mind mathematics...let's just concentrate on language...

For almost eighty years now, each successive edition of Fowler's 'Modern English Usage' has been regarded as the 'bible' in terms of the correct use of the language in this country (UK) and most of the rest of the English-speaking world. Here are the opening words from its entry on 'none'...(quote):

"It is a mistake to suppose that the pronoun is singular only and must at all costs be followed by singular verbs or pronouns.

(The above 'singular only' view is what I myself originally said before I delved more deeply into it.)

It then provides a multitude of singular and plural illustrations and closes the entry as follows...(quote)

"Verdict: use a singular verb where possible but if the notion of plurality is present a plural verb has been optional since the Old English period and in some circumstances is desirable."

So, Flash, you seem to be facing a stark - but quite incredibly simple - decision. Whether to go with Landie's view that 'none' is plural - and only plural - or Ess Jay's view that it is singular - and only singular - or that of Fowler's 'MEU' that it may be either singular or plural. I modified my original view in light of more authoritative opinion, so it may well be time for them to modify theirs.

Obviously I didn't mean that 'none' was more than one. It refers to none of two or more. Whoever heard of none of a fraction? Surely you jest.

I totally agree with Quizmonster (I nearly always do!) I regularly do proofreading and if I am ever in doubt I check websites such as www.askoxford.com

On that website you will discover the following comment about "none".

"Some traditionalists maintain that none can only take a singular verb (as in none of them is coming tonight rather than none of them are coming tonight). However, none is descended from Old English nan meaning �not one�, and has been used for around a thousand years with either a singular or a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed."

Thanks, Rev. 'Askoxford', the website recommended, is of course a branch of the Oxford English Dictionaries organisation...if anything, an even more authoritative linguistic source than Fowler!

I think we can all rest assured that 'none' can be either singular or plural...and that really is the end of the story.

In view of devolution, I admit to being English. Does that make a difference to my use of none?!
PS I have always been told that if in doubt rephrase the sentence.
Sorry, it's late and I only skimmed the answers. Rereading the answers, though, I think RevShirls kind of suports my last comment. Couldn't the sentence given as an example be "no-one is coming tonight" thereby negating the need to worry about singular or plural 'none". I'll bow to more respected sources than my English Language teacher - Fowlers and "Askoxford" - with regard to the theory of the language, but will stick with rewording in order to disguise my ignorance.

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