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ummmm | 16:34 Fri 01st Apr 2011 | Law
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OH has just received a contract from work.

He's been working for the same firm for 15 years with no contract. Where does he stand if he doesn't sign it?
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is there a forwarding letter with the contract explaining why it has been issued at this point and what happens if the contract is not signed?
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Just a standard letter to sign...and then the contract to sign.

I've read through much of it....and to be honest there are only a few little issues (so far)

What he has a problem with at the moment is the contract is written in the employers favour. Is this a good time to bring up grievances?
It's a tricky one.
If he doesn't sign it they can sack him *because* he won't sign it...........and because he doesn't have one to fall back on, he would have problems fighting against the sacking by proving that they were acting beyond the scope of any contract he did have with them.

Is everything exactly the same as it always has been in terms of management/ownership, etc ?
i thought he was self employed?
Question Author
Hmmm...is there a time limit on him signing it?

No Fluff...he's always been on the books with this firm.

They are saying he started in May 2001 but on companies house it says 'Date of Incorporation: 21/03/2002'

and 'Previous Names:
No previous name information has been recorded over the last 20 years'

Yet he's been working for them for 15 years from when the father had the company.
but were they a limited company when he started there?
Question Author
No they weren't limited when he started.

They went limited on 23/03/2003...but they didn't change their name.

What the boss has said is the reason they have him down as May 2001 is because he went on holiday and that was the date he came back!
same name but with LTD or limited on the end, nothing wrong with that. And the paperwork will only say when the company was formed. His emplyment would just have been transfered over from old company though so its a continuation of emplyment
Question Author
Well it's not continuous because they have a start date from when he came back from holiday and not from when he started over 4 years earlier.
Well I'd be having the start date amended because it's important that's correct in the event of subsequent redundancy and possibly for pension rights if there is one.

The name thing on incorporation is entirely irrelevant though. Forget about it.

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