Donate SIGN UP

is a text message legally binding

Avatar Image
murphys18 | 13:50 Tue 26th Feb 2008 | Law
4 Answers
I am in the process of selling my car,i had an interested party come to view it who later put in an offer,i responded to that offer via text message accepting it.i have since received a higher offer from another party and so i said i would be unable to sell to the 1st person,they are saying the text i sent is a written agreement of my intention to sell and as such i am obliged to sell to him. is this correct?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by murphys18. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
what a crock.
If he suddenly had to pull out because of lack of funds, do you think you would have to legally bind him to buy it?
If he was that keen he should have put a deposit on it! Anyway you are entitled to decide not to sell it all.
Nonsense Meglet. Offer plus acceptance constitutes acceptance. Whether it's a test message or a handshake we have a contract. An offer can be withdrawn before acceptance but acceptance cannot be withdrawn after a better offer.

If you breach the original contract the offeror can sue to either enforce the contract, or damages. The offeror is however obliged to minimise his/her losses.

Forgetting the law for a second though: Don't you feel that you should be morally obliged to stand by the original agreement? Do the honest and decent thing!
Arghh! Offer plus acceptance = contract! (Blush)

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Do you know the answer?

is a text message legally binding

Answer Question >>