Donate SIGN UP

Where Does This Property Owner Stand Legally?

Avatar Image
flipnflap | 13:43 Fri 28th Dec 2012 | Law
4 Answers
If a property owner gets gas installed and then a year or so later still has never received any gas bills, are they liable to pay the backlog if suddenly it's realised? Or are they legally entitled to say: well you didn't send me any bills, so why should i have to pay? Any thoughts on this appreciated
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by flipnflap. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Legally you ( or whoever) have had and used the gas and owe the money. You (or whoever ) might be able to negotiate staged payment if paying the money in one lump would cause hardship.
Legally the person would be liable to pay. The gas has been provided, and the person knows it's been provided and that it needs to be paid for. IMO.
you would still have to pay, however they cannot demand you pay it all at once.

you can organise to pay an amount on top of your bill each month.

they could argue, that although they did not send any bills, you knew you had the gas, and you knew it wasnt free, and you could have reminded them ... they could say that you did not attempt to pay in a whole year means you took gas with no intention of paying for it... which is theft...

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Where Does This Property Owner Stand Legally?

Answer Question >>

Related Questions

Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.