Donate SIGN UP

Discrimination between the Home Countries

Avatar Image
Lonnie | 19:59 Tue 18th Mar 2008 | Politics
4 Answers
We all know, or should, about the Barnet Formula and the West Lothian question,
Thats coupled with the discrepencies with paying for medication, tuition fees etc,

Would anyone care to say why these things have happened?.
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by Lonnie. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Both have arisen because of devolution.

The �West Lothian question� (why Scottish, Welsh and Northern Irish MPs can vote on matters which do not affect their constituents) was foreseen and raised well in advance of the 1998 Scottish devolution (as early as 1977, in fact, when devolution was first seriously considered).

The Scottish parliament has control over a large number of matters and does not need to seek agreement from the Westminster parliament to implement measures which only affect Scottish residents. English MPs have no similar luxury for matters only affecting the English and can (and often are) outvoted by MPs from other parts of the Union

As with most things it was dismissed out of hand in the run up to devolution, but is now proving to be more and more relevant as Scottish, Welsh and Irish MPs look after their own conststuents but also have the right to vote on purely English matters.

The Barnett formula was introduced around the same time to determine how much public expenditure each of the constituent countries of the Union would receive. Last year Scotland received 97% of the average per head expenditure, Wales 103%, Northern Ireland 112% and England 85%. The Barnett formula is unlikely to be changed in the short term because, of course, most Scottish and Welsh constituencies are represented by Labour MPs and without them Labour would not command a majority at Westminster. The English labour MPs will therefore be whipped to vote against any changes (thus perpetuating the �West Lothian question�).
Question Author
A very concise and exact answer, especially the last part of your reply,

I did know what they were, but not in the detail you've explained.

Thanks.
It is perhaps worth pointing out, however, that while the Barnett formula was first 'aired' when Joel Barnett was around, under a Labour administration, it remained in place all through the Thatcher and Major years and might therefore be felt to be a non-party issue. In general it applies only to increases or decreases in expenditure year on year and therefore is not a zero-based formula for expenditure overall. The principal factor in determining the per capita ratio between Scots and English spending has been the much lower population growth in Scotland. For much of the period for which the Barnett formula has been in force the population north of the border has been falling or at least rising at a very slow rate compared to England.
Question Author
Thats very true, but right now, unlike the years you mention, Scotland is now, to all intents and purposes and independent self governing country, and for myself, I see noneed for it to still be in olace.

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Discrimination between the Home Countries

Answer Question >>

Related Questions

Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.