Donate SIGN UP

House deeds

Avatar Image
medlock1142 | 04:52 Tue 11th Jan 2005 | Business & Finance
2 Answers
My wife and I have divorced and she has taken out a re-mortgage on the house in her name, she has paid me a lump sum but I have not signed anything to transfer the house deeds into her name. Does this mean I still own half the house even though she is paying the mortgage?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 2 of 2rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by medlock1142. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.

Has she been telling porkies to the building society?  Surely they wouldn`t do such a thing without double-checking?

How could she have done this without your knowledge and consent?

If you had a joint mortgage your consent should have been given, or at the very least asked for so that a judicial decision could be made.

Have you actually accepted a payment or had one imposed upon you? The answer to that one may make or break your case.

Too many unanswered questions.......get legal advice ASAP.

It solely depends upon the name(s) Registered as Proprietor at the Land Registry. Only the Proprietor(s) can borrow against the security of land. As your ex has the mortgage it is most unlikely that you have anything at all to do with the property. You can easily check - click this link

ttp://www.landregisteronline.gov.uk/servlet/TitleSearchServlet

and pay �2 by credit card to see the Register.

1 to 2 of 2rss feed

Do you know the answer?

House deeds

Answer Question >>