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old_labour | 01:53 Fri 01st Oct 2010 | Body & Soul
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I have recently been told by my wife whom I married in April 2008 that she had HPV as the result of a affair that did not end until August 2007. In June 2006 she had two warts removed fron her genital area. There have been no warts since. Does this mean that her antibodies have dealt with the HPV and she is "cured" and that I have not been exposed to HPV? Soon after we were married she told me of her earlier affair and that the man was regularly having sex with prostitutes. I am so relieved that insisted that she had a HIV test and even more relieved that it was negative.
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There is no real way of knowing if your wife's immune system has eradicated the virus, you can of course be tested but the results are not always reliable.

http://www.cancerhelp...what-is-the-hpv-virus
Should have said some info there, do not be a;armed that it is a cancer site!!
<<Does this mean that her antibodies have dealt with the HPV and she is "cured<<<
No, not necessarily.

<<Does this mean that her antibodies have dealt with the HPV and she is "cured<<

No, you may have been exposed.

I would suggest that you both continue having tests for HpV
sorry....2nd paragraph should have read:

<<<I have not been exposed to HPV?<<<

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