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Religious slaughter in the uk

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auntsallyann | 23:48 Wed 25th Aug 2010 | Law
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Could anybody give me a legal opinion on the law as it applies to the exemption to the UK rules of slaughter specifically for Kosher and Halal meat (these are the only 2 exeptions). My layman's reading is that the exemption only allows the resulting RSM to be fed to people of the appropriate religion - and we all know that is NOT what is happening in the UK at present. If I am correct we could reduce the suffering of many thousands of animals at a stroke and put many places that sell this meat out of business too (or they could do the right thing and only use properly slaughtered meat).
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(2-part post):

Paragraph 2 of Schedule 12 of The Welfare of Animals (Slaughter or Killing) Regulations 1995 does specifically refer to "the food of Jews" and "the food of Muslims" within the exemptions from the general provisions of the Regulations. So it might be assumed that the exemptions only apply when it is known (or could reasonably be assumed) that the meat will be consumed by those of the appropriate faiths:
http://tinyurl.com/3xgd3s7

However any legal challenge could prove to be a legal minefield. For example, if an animal is slaughtered in accordance with Kosher practices and then supplied to a butcher's shop in, say, Golders Green (where most customers are likely to be Jewish), what would happen if I (as an atheist) tried to purchase that meat? Would the butcher be obliged to question me as to my faith? Would he then be obliged to discriminate against me on the grounds of my (lack of) religion? Would I also then be barred from eating in restaurants where Kosher or Halal meats are served?
Similarly, there are plenty of Muslim-run businesses which prepare and sell frozen 'ready meals', using Halal meat. Are they to be restricted to only offering their products to Muslim shopkeepers, or to other shopkeepers in mainly Muslim areas? Again, what should happen if I try to buy one of those meals?

There are so many potential legal arguments, relating to such things as 'racial discrimination' and 'restraint of trade', that any action against a 'religious' slaughterhouse, on the grounds that the meat might not be consumed by a member of the relevant faith, would be fraught with difficulties. It's unlikely that the Crown Prosecution Service would decide that such a prosecution was 'in the public interest'. It's also unlikely that any individual or organisation would have the funds to bring a private prosecution.

Chris
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Thanks Chris, I just do not like the thought that I could unknowingly be purchasing this kind of meat. The EU are stating that there should be clear labelling on all foodstuffs so the consumer knows exactly what one is buying, but I,m not sure if and when that may be made law.
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Chris
The link to the Law is http://www.opsi.gov.u...0731_en_19.htm#sdiv12

The wording I am interested in is:-

The Welfare of Animals (Slaughter or Killing) Regulations 1995
...
Slaughter by a religious method



2. In this Schedule references to slaughter by a religious method are references to slaughter without the infliction of unnecessary suffering—
(a) by the Jewish method for the food of Jews by a Jew who holds a licence in accordance with Schedule 1 (which relates to the licensing of slaughtermen) and who is duly licensed—
(i) in England and Wales by the Rabbinical Commission referred to in Part IV of this Schedule; or
(ii) in Scotland by the Chief Rabbi; or
(b) by the Muslim method for the food of Muslims by a Muslim who holds a licence in accordance with Schedule 1.

Which to my reading states the RSM can only be fed to poeple of the appropriate religion - 'by the Jewish method for the food of Jews' and 'by the Muslim method for the food of Muslims'. I also am thinking about the wording ' without the infliction of unnecessary suffering' !See More

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