Donate SIGN UP

Housing contract and landlord query

Avatar Image
scratch274 | 19:38 Mon 11th Jan 2010 | Civil
4 Answers
I have been renting a property from a private landlord for almost two years. An assured shorthold tenancy agreement has been signed (an off the shelf thing) and there have been no problems so far. Although the contract states the bills are the tenants responsibility the landlord has one of the utility bills in his name and has paid this for the entirity of the contract. For whatever reason he wants to switch this into my name, though he has given sufficient warning of this. I don't have a massive issue with this as such though I'm curious as to where he stands in relation to the original contract. By taking on the utility bill and paying it has he created a contract or changed the original contract? Thanks
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by scratch274. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
same thing happened to my daughter everything was included in the rent then they said my daughter had to pay water rates and polltax..but she did get a reduction in her rent so dont forget to ask about that..
Your situation is different from jenty's daughter because your contract states that you are responsible for the bills. You have gained until now by not having to pay & I don't think you can or should do anything about it now - just accept your good fortune! I think your landlord could reasonably argue that what has happened was either an oversight or a concession, or he could say you should have taken action at the outset to get the utility changed into your name. I certainly don't think he has created (or changed) a contract.
Just make sure an accurate reading is given to the utility company when it happens. Then you can shop around for the cheapest fuel.
Sound's like the lanlord has decided to remove the bill from his name, into the name of the person occupying the property, which is perfectly understandable, this has been done in a reasonable way, (notice being given). I cannot seem to understand why there is any problem.? If you care to explain, please feel free and go ahead as I am rather interested in what people are actually responding to?.

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Housing contract and landlord query

Answer Question >>

Related Questions

Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.