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Definition of Theft and other legal matters

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Segilla | 23:25 Sun 02nd Sep 2007 | Law
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In the 1960's for insurance exams I committed to memory the defintion:- A person steals who without the consent of the owner, takes and carries away anything capable of being stolen permanently to deprive the owner thereof. Is this still current? Does Rylands v Fletcher still assume great importance and how often is the doctrine of the proximate cause raised, (also etched in memory!)..
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The definition of theft under Section 1 of the Theft Act 1968 is:
A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it.
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) is still one of the most quoted cases on strict liability relating to land.
When I was studying law we had to break down the definition of theft word by word and define each word (i.e. dishonestly = with malice aforethought).
I couldn't tell you what I had for breakfast yesterday morning but I can remember all the definitions I had to learn years ago!
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Thank you very much. I studied for the ACII pre 1968, so my definition must be the one from the early 20C(?).



As far as I'm aware the 1968 Theft Act (which is still valid today) replaced the old Larceny Act. Is this the one you remember?

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