Donate SIGN UP

Sir Francis Drake and the Spanish Armada

Avatar Image
oldfahrt | 13:07 Tue 13th Mar 2007 | History
8 Answers
I have just been told by a friend that Drake caused the Spanish Armada and I am saying that he did not. There's a bottle of wine at stake here. Can anyone help?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 8 of 8rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by oldfahrt. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Well possibly, but not really. It was more about the claim to the English throne.

War broke out between Spain and England in 1585. Drake sailed to the New World and sacked the ports of Santo Domingo and Cartagena. On the return leg of the voyage, he captured the Spanish fort of San August�ne in Florida. These exploits encouraged Philip II of Spain to order the planning for an invasion of England.

Although Drake was a tad irritating to the Spaniards and the Armada was partly sent to suppress attacks on spanish possessions in the new world. The real main purposes of the Armada were to do with support for the United Provinces, to re-establish catholocism in England but ultimately King Philip's attempt to invade England and overthrow Queen Elizabeth I.

Octavius, you are right again.
In history, causes, per se, are rarely cut-and-dried.
If Drake caused the Armada, then Haig caused WW1
and Churchill caused WW2 - or was it Gavrilo Princep
and Erwin Rommel ?
Question Author
Thank you very much Octavius for that very excellent answer.
Well seeing as you're both sort of right can I presume the plonk is heading my way?!
Just another irrelevant fact Sir Francis Drake was the uncle of Sir Walter Raleigh
And Sir Walter Raleigh was his nephew.
not quite an uncle, his grandparents were Raleigh's great-grandparents
Really? No, Raleigh ! ;-)

1 to 8 of 8rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Sir Francis Drake and the Spanish Armada

Answer Question >>

Related Questions