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partners debt's

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full-throttl | 19:16 Thu 09th Nov 2006 | Law
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my partner is moving home to live with me and has debt problems, am i liable for any of her debts once she has moved in or is she solely reponsible?
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You will never become liable to pay someone else's debts, even if you marry thyem, unless you expressly agree with the creditor that you will pay, and then only in certain circumstances.
And if she continues to run up debts whilst living with you, you may find it hard to get credit as she will be registered at your address.

I found it hard to get credit after moving to this house as the previous occupants had mountains of debts!
AND.... you need the apostrophe in the word �partner�s� (because an apostrophe indicates possession, and your partner possesses the debts) but not in the work �debts� (because the debts are simply the plural of debt, and apostrophes play no part in plurals - except in some greengrocers' shops).

So they are your partner�s debts. If you had more than one partner and they all had debts it would your partners� debts (because the debts belong to the partners).

Sorry, I woke up in my �anti-misplaced-apostrophe mood today�!
I really didn't expect that from you, Judge!
I did say sorry!!!!!
At present you have no responsibility for her debts.

But if you own your home and she lives with you for some time and contributes to costs such as the mortgage then she could possibly build up a beneficial interest in the home. If she was then bankrupted the home could be at risk or you would have to buy out her beneficial interest.

If you open any joint accounts your credit records will be linked and her adverse credit problem will affect you in getting credit. If you keep your finances entirely separate this should not happen - credit reference agency files are now based on names and not addresses (Pippa's problems may pre-date this change). If you did have any credit problems despite keeping everything separate you could record a notice of dissociation on the CRA files.
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Themas,

the situation is as follows, my new partner has debts associated with bank loans and credit cards, i on the otherhand only have a mortgage. we have agreed that she will have no financial input onto the running of my house, i will continue to pay the mortgage, council tax and utility bills.

the only thing i have asked is that she contributes to the grocery shopping once a month, is this arrangement suitable in a court of law.

i have spoken to a solicitor who has told me that as long as she doesn't pay any bills or mortgage she will have no financial interset in the property should the worst happen.

any further help/info into this matter would be appreciated

I think that, if you stick rigidly to the arrangement you describe, do not marry, and the house and mortgage remain in your sole name your partner should not be able to build up a beneficial interest because she would have made no contribution to the house. Also, she should not do anything that could be argued later to be contributing to improving or maintaining the house - decorating, helping pay for an extension etc.

I say "should" and not "will" because no one can ever give you 100% certainty on a thing like this. If the relationship lasted a long time (particularly if there were children) and then broke down she might find some way (although I can't envisage how) to take you to Court and claim a share of the house. What happened would then be for the judge to decide.

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