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Proving a theory

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squarebear | 08:18 Tue 11th May 2010 | Science
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I had some spare time yesterday and was thinking about maths and I realised that any odd number can be made from two consecutive numbers. eg:

3+4=7
7+8=15
50+51=101

and so on. I'm sure this has already been discovered before but my question is, how would you prove my "Squarebear theorem" for any odd number, as it was a long time since I did maths at school.
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Your theory needs an exception

0+1=1 odd
Sorry scratch that not had enough coffee yet
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But 1 can be made from zero and one, which are consecutive.
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No problem Jake. It is still a bit early :-)
as any two sequential numbers will always be one odd and one even number Surely it's just the old rules.

Even + Even = Even

Even + Odd = Odd

Odd + odd + even
If a number x is even x+x+1 must be odd as 2x is even

If a number x is odd x+x+1 must be odd
Consider y where y=x-1 y must be even id x is odd

so we have y+1+y+1+1 or 2y+2+1

As x must be odd or even the sum of two consecetive numbers is odd
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True Chuck but an odd and even number are not necessarily consecutive.

Jake's reply is the sort of thing I was looking for. I just need to get my head round it now :-)

Thanks for your answers guys. It's amazing what the mind thinks up when bored.
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A slightly simpler answer would be that two consecutive whole numbers can be expressed as x and x+1
Adding together gives x + x + 1 = 2x +1
As 2x must be even (integer divisible by 2) the 1 left over makes it odd.
What you're really saying is 3+3+1 = 7, 7+7+1 = 15 etc or if you like 2n+1 must be an odd number because 1 is an odd number. In fact 2n+m must be odd if m is odd and even if m is even.
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Pefect. I understand it now. Thanks for your help.
your theory is more like an axiom
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I don't know the correct terminology. As I say, it's a long while since I was at school.
Frankly, it's fairly self evident which is why it's strikes me as being axiomatic in all of maths other than number theory (sorry to be brutal).
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It may be self evident but I doubt say Pythagoras would have got away with his idea by saying, "It's obvious. Everyone knows that". I was just wondering how you would prove something like that and got my answer.

This is where the "close question" button would be handy.
Sorry to have upset you.

Euclid's Elements book 7 contains the definitive answer to your original question.
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No problem bibblebub :-)
Yesterday I said 2n+m must be even if m is even and odd if m is odd. Obviously this is only true when you are dealing with whole numbers and does not apply if (say) n = 1.5
If you want something to prove that needs proving how about tackling the proposition that every even number can be expressed as the sum of two primes - and sometimes more.

E.g. 8=5+3 40=37+3 124=113+11 36=23+13 or 36=23+11+2 or 36=19+11+3+3

No-one has done it yet.
Well clearly every even number can be written as the sum of primes since 2 is a prime number. So 12= 2+2+2+2+2+2, etc, 8 = 2+2+2+2 etc.
Or did you mean the sum of two or more prime numbers, 2 or more of which are different?

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