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Another Maths Problem.

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Buenchico | 19:04 Wed 29th Oct 2014 | ChatterBank
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Since people seem to be in the mood for mathematical oddities today, take a look at this:
http://tinypic.com/view.php?pic=2ujp9p3&s=8

How many regions would you get from 6 dots all joined together?
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I think I've completely solved the problem and have some understanding about how to intuit one's way towards it. On the off-chance that anyone's interested, I might write it up neatly because it's beyond AB's capacity to present the answer (I'd need a fair few diagrams). Anyway, the general difference between two terms in the sequence is f(n+1) - f(n) =...
21:16 Wed 29th Oct 2014
32? n to the power of 2?
Question Author
Good try, BlackadderV, but wrong!
any reason why it wouldn't be 32? since each dot seems to double the number created by having one dot fewer.
Thought it must be wrong, because that is the logical arithmetic progression. Short of drawing it, I don't know.
Question Author
That's I would have thought, Jno, but if you actually try drawing it you don't get 32.
It's 31. I think.
I've drawn it, badly, and can't read my own writing clearly enough to see if it's 30 or 31; but it doesn't seem to be 32. Why?
Question Author
OK, I'll give you the sequence and see if you can work out the next term. The number of regions doesn't go
2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256. . .
as you might expect.

It actually goes
2, 4, 8, 16, 31, 57, 99, 163, . . .
but there's still a mathematical pattern, so it's possible to work out what comes after 163. Any suggestions?

BTW: This is from the first maths lesson I did each year with Year 8 (12yo) pupils, so it shouldn't be too hard ;-)
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(Well done, Jim!)
I cheated by looking it up, although I know how to derive the result. I'm wondering if I can think of a justification... watch this space.
(Just to clarify, I solved the problem of 31 myself although I was expecting the answer; I looked the formula up rather than derived it.)
I think it's 256 but can't work out the general term yet
Question Author
Congratulations, Prudie!

(I wouldn't worry too much about the general term. I've seen a formula for it, worked out by a Professor of Applied Mathematics after I showed him the 12-year-olds way of working it out, but I didn't even understand his notation!)
That's reassuring! The third line down of the differences just goes up by 1 each time (if you get what I mean).
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I'm assuming that Prudie got there via the 'repeated differences' technique, that works for any sequence (as long as you know a sufficiently large number of terms to start with):
http://tinypic.com/view.php?pic=jfjb0z&;s=8
2 4 8 15 26 42 64
2 4 7 11 16 22
2 3 4 5 6 7 ........

Prudie's differences ..............
Question Author
Crossed posts! You obviously did use 'repeated differences'. I taught myself that trick when I was about 8 or 9 years old but I'm amazed that many maths graduates have never come across it!
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PS: I've won a few pints in pubs by getting people to state which number comes after 16 when you mark those regions ;-)
I actually had never come across this method during my own education - in fact I only saw it for the first time a couple of years ago when a work colleague asked me to help him to help his son with his homework and I saw it on the example sheet. I agree I can't understand why I never saw it before.
I think I've completely solved the problem and have some understanding about how to intuit one's way towards it. On the off-chance that anyone's interested, I might write it up neatly because it's beyond AB's capacity to present the answer (I'd need a fair few diagrams).

Anyway, the general difference between two terms in the sequence is

f(n+1) - f(n) = (n^3-3n^2+8n)/6 ; f(1) = 0

Which does indeed generate the right sequence 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 31 ...



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