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Regarding The Medieval Vilage, What Was The Purpose Of The `infield`?

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Sellergarth | 21:58 Wed 06th Feb 2013 | History
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I have read that the `infield` of the village was a field in close proximity to the village which was kept under constant cultivation. But why? I assumed that permanently keeping crops in one field took all the nutrients from the soil and that is why crop rotation was practised, which allowed one field at a time to lay fallow for one year in order to recover.
Hope someone can shed some light on this for me. Thanks.
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The infield in a medieval sense is usually the area of arable closest to the village or stead that it relates to. It usually ( but not always ) formed about between 20-25% of the overall land ( so about 75% was the outfield and usually either rougher arable or grazing). This infield was constantly cultivated but not as a whole usually being rotated between arable...
22:20 Wed 06th Feb 2013
The infield in a medieval sense is usually the area of arable closest to the village or stead that it relates to. It usually ( but not always ) formed about between 20-25% of the overall land ( so about 75% was the outfield and usually either rougher arable or grazing). This infield was constantly cultivated but not as a whole usually being rotated between arable crop and another crop on a 2 - 3 yearly basis so as not to make the land totally unproductive. Occasionally it would be left fallow for a season.
the infield could be used for cultivating produce for the consumption in the village, bearing in mind you are talking before enclosure and so all fields were open and vast which is why strip farming was used to give each villager a portion of the manor's land to work to cultivate produce to sell rather than consume
and to sell for the manor not for a peasant's own profit of course
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Many thanks NOX and DJHawkes for answering my question so promptly, it
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oops error on my part! Last post should have ended.... `its appreciated`

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