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For good

Why do we say " for good" to mean "permanently". We often mean the opposite of "good" in any other sense e.g : " My friend has gone for good" .tells the hearer that we regret the passing,. not that we are pleased about it. or see "good" in it

fredpuli47 Fri 03/10/08 19:37

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dundurn
Fri 03/10/08
22:43

I've always assumed it was a contracted version of "gone for good or ill" i.e. whether the passing was a good or a bad thing the fact was that it definitely was gone.

Quizmonster
Sat 04/10/08
08:28

It originated in the 1500s as 'for good and all' rather than good and ill. Thereafter, it was even sometimes hyphenated as 'good-and-all'. I suppose the use of two words was seen as a means of emphasising the utter finality of whatever was being spoken of. Rather in the manner of rhyming slang, the key word then disappeared!

fredpuli47
Sat 04/10/08
18:36

Question Author

Interesting. Londoners still say "good 'n' all" to mean 'absolutely' or 'once and for all': "That's 'im seen to, good 'n' all!"

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