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Gay Marriage Question - Part 2

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Nay37 | 14:52 Tue 19th Feb 2013 | Relationships & Dating
35 Answers
Ok then guys and dolls, Say two blokes got married and one of them slept with another person causing divorce why cant they call it aldultery but they can for man and woman relationships. If they want marriage to be equal for all types of couples why is adultery only for heterosexual couples.
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Because of the legal definition of adultery, as it stands at the minute.
I expect gay people would agree with you

The problem is that the civil servants drafting the legislation can't agree on a form of words to define either consummation of a gay marriage or an act of adultery with another person of the same sex .

However, adultery will be a permitted grounds for divorce if it follows sexual intercourse between one of the couple and someone of the opposite sex
And the catch all Unreasonable behaviour is still available and I would suggest that sleeping with someone else would be deemed unreasonable so the adultery issue not really necessary
2 blokes can't get married
Not at the moment joe.

But they will be able to soon.

You'll need to update your definitions.

Doesn't make it right though - just Cameron rewriting the rules of society to suit his own party and ensure they get the future pinky vote
well as this is a democracy what is 'right' is that the majority want it to be and according to the Polls, the majority of British people are in favour of marriage equality

As far as the supposed 'pink vote' is concerned, it is by definition a small minority that has no significant impact in any marginal seats, so I doubt if DC is courting it. He probably does have an agenda to appear more up to date, more fair-minded and less 'stick-in-the-mud' or reactionary.
You mean he want's to look less conservative?
^
LOL craft

You may say that, I couldn't possibly comment
Nay37, are you any relation to Nay35?
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its not difficult it's wife and wife, husband and husband

very very simple
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humbersloop - it seems that the two Nays are the same person. Lol
if a married man has sex with another man can that be cited as adultery?
I didn't think that was allowed sir.p
It's not.
The use of the word 'partner' is a horrible way to describe your husband/wife or girlfriend/boyfriend. It's a cold meaningless term that says nothing about the relationship between the two people. I refuse to use it and if someone refers to my wife as my 'partner', I correct them.
so what happens then?
well that would have something do do with

wife and wife being a marriage comprised of two women
husband and husband being a marriage comprised of two men

are you really that dense or are your prejudices showing through...

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