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twilightflyer | 23:02 Wed 03rd Feb 2016 | Civil
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I moved into my partners home which is mortgage free, I did so 2 years ago, she pays for the rates and services and I pay for all the food and running repairs.
She has a will made for the two of her kin and I would like to know where I stand in this if anything should happen to her, god forbid.
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it will depend on what her will ctually says, but i would guess you'd be put on your ear
Answered this on other thread....you have no rights..name not on deeds or nominated as a beneficiary....I would be having this conversation with your partner !
If you were married it would all go to you.

But being just a "partner" it has no legal standing.

So unless the will says so, you would get nothing (even though you may have contributed to the running of the house).
are you in the UK?
Can only repeat what has been said. You could have an expensive court case if you have kept all the receipts for the payments you have made, but, to be honest, you would be out on your ear. At the very least draw up a legal document specifying your contributions. Otherwise - get married.
why do you think you stand anywhere
when you havent contributed anything to the house ?

anyway if you can at the time of her death show that you are dependent on her then you can apply for relief under the relevant act 1967 I think for support. Chris BC cane up with the specific name a few weeks ago

anyway you are living rent free and that is your advantage

as for the inheriting kin - if they are anything like my family they will have you out within a month ....
If she died intestate you'd get nothing, but as she's made a will you'll get whatever it says.
Well you could ask her but I assume that as she hasn’t told you, she doesn’t want you to know.
The answers above seem to have come mainly from people who've never read the provisions of the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975!

If you'd been living with your partner for a period of two years at the time of her death, as if you were her husband (even though no actual marriage had been entered into), then under Section 1(1A) of the Act you would have the right to apply to a court to vary the terms of her will to provide you with 'reasonable financial provision'.

In considering such an application, the court must have regard to the factors listed in Section 3 (1) of the Act.

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1975/63
thx BC
that is the one I was thinking of

I tried to dredge it up but the AB search function is not the best

I have actually changed my will to take the 1975 Act into account
( family fuil of rapacious dependants )
i think the poster is in hte US from previous posts
Which country are you in Twy ?

our answers are exclusively fambly law of England and Wales

The common law position unless altered by local statute is that you have no rights at all
Chris, are you sure section 1(1A) applies in this case. It refers to

"...the person was living—

(a)in the same household as the deceased, and

(b)as the husband or wife of the deceased. "

Section 1(1B)(b) covers "civil partner" for the same situation, but the OP doesn't say whether a civil partnership was entered into.
From previous posts it looks like twilightflyer is in the USA.
If so the law is different over there and even varies from state to state.

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