Donate SIGN UP

King James I and Divine Right

Avatar Image
dlea442113 | 20:53 Mon 15th Jun 2009 | History
3 Answers
Why did King James I of England not rule by divine right. He truly believed in it and published works on the topic. I cannot seem to find any information on why he did not rule in this manner. Please provide links or cite the works that you use so I can look it up for my research.
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 3 of 3rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by dlea442113. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
if you go through this wiki article and then follow some of the references you should be able to find some material
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divine_right_of_k ings
James, after banning religious petitions, told the Hampton Court Conference of 1604 that he preferred the status quo with the monarch ruling the church through the bishops, as in the primitive church before the bishops of Rome turned into popes.

If bishops were put out of power, �I know what would become of my supremacy,� James objected. �No bishop, no King. When I mean to live under a presbytery I will go to Scotland again.�
The same reason I don't rule my street by divine right: the neighbours have other ideas. To enforce personal rule you'd need an army, and you'd have to pay them, and where would the money come from? The main thing the Stuarts needed parliament for was to provide them with money by agreeing taxes.

1 to 3 of 3rss feed

Do you know the answer?

King James I and Divine Right

Answer Question >>

Related Questions