Crosswords17 mins ago
Answers
Best Answer
No best answer has yet been selected by R1Geezer. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
The Dutch never wanted to 'attract' a load of dopeheads.....it wanted to be liberal in the way it addressed *soft* drug usage in its own citizens (it still does, hence the Nationals-only register under present consideration).
The fact that a certain type of person, throughout the remainder of the world, took advantage of these aims/ideals is something that the Dutch government is seeking to address.
The fact that a certain type of person, throughout the remainder of the world, took advantage of these aims/ideals is something that the Dutch government is seeking to address.
JTH is absolutely correct on this - I lived in Holland for 5 years. the country can sometimes be a bit of a mysterious conundrum in that they have a hugely liberal society soft drugs are permiited, young teenage sex, prosititution is legal etc and on the other hand you have a strong conservative society with the strict Calvanism where everything shuts down on Sunday, only book read is the Bible etc, extreme financial prudence etc - you see this very evident in the countryside even today.
A Dutch friend brilliantly explained this to me as "we are a nation of 16 million floating islands that occasionally bump into each other. If our islands are not touching, then we are not bothered what goes on." So a different version of our "out of sight, out of mind."
A Dutch friend brilliantly explained this to me as "we are a nation of 16 million floating islands that occasionally bump into each other. If our islands are not touching, then we are not bothered what goes on." So a different version of our "out of sight, out of mind."
What is far more interesting than the issue itself is the fact that the Dutch seem quite able to make such a proposal..
Imagine this scenario here in the UK:
The government has decided that pubs and bars can no longer serve spirits to non-natives. Natives will have to sign up for membership to a pub before they can buy a Vodka. Only UK citizens will be allowed to apply for such membership and foreigners will be prevented from buying spirits at all.
How long, do you think, it would be before a prosecution is launched on the basis that such rules are discriminatory on the grounds of race?
Imagine this scenario here in the UK:
The government has decided that pubs and bars can no longer serve spirits to non-natives. Natives will have to sign up for membership to a pub before they can buy a Vodka. Only UK citizens will be allowed to apply for such membership and foreigners will be prevented from buying spirits at all.
How long, do you think, it would be before a prosecution is launched on the basis that such rules are discriminatory on the grounds of race?
No, I was not suggesting anything of the kind, Gromit.
Any action to be taken here would almost certainly be taken by our own authorities under the 2010 Equalties Act. This Act brings together many previously existing pieces of legislation and aims, among many other things to “...continue to provide protection against unlawful racial discrimination and promote equality of opportunity and good relations between people of different racial groups.”
The issue of whether the goods or services in question are illegal or not is not relevant. They are being provided with the knowledge (and presumably the complicity) of the State. .It is hard therefore to see how the Dutch proposals are anything but racially discriminatory. It will mean Dutch people have access to goods and services which will be denied to non-Dutch people. As I said earlier such a proposal on any matter here in the UK would be unlawful not to mention unthinkable.
I make no comment about whether this is right or wrong, but the Dutch have clearly seen a need to allow such discrimination. However, where “Europe” does come in is that Article 14 of the European Convention on Human Rights (nothing to do with the EU) prohibits discrimination on the grounds of race. It follows that any government introducing laws which allow such discrimination is in breach of the Article.
So the question is, what if any action will be taken against the Dutch if they enact their proposals?
Any action to be taken here would almost certainly be taken by our own authorities under the 2010 Equalties Act. This Act brings together many previously existing pieces of legislation and aims, among many other things to “...continue to provide protection against unlawful racial discrimination and promote equality of opportunity and good relations between people of different racial groups.”
The issue of whether the goods or services in question are illegal or not is not relevant. They are being provided with the knowledge (and presumably the complicity) of the State. .It is hard therefore to see how the Dutch proposals are anything but racially discriminatory. It will mean Dutch people have access to goods and services which will be denied to non-Dutch people. As I said earlier such a proposal on any matter here in the UK would be unlawful not to mention unthinkable.
I make no comment about whether this is right or wrong, but the Dutch have clearly seen a need to allow such discrimination. However, where “Europe” does come in is that Article 14 of the European Convention on Human Rights (nothing to do with the EU) prohibits discrimination on the grounds of race. It follows that any government introducing laws which allow such discrimination is in breach of the Article.
So the question is, what if any action will be taken against the Dutch if they enact their proposals?
