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orcadian | 23:47 Tue 12th Sep 2006 | Business & Finance
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i have a friend who has a partner and a son,he pays single mans tax,should this not be lower as he has a child?
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I'm not an expert, but my experience was (as part of unmarried couple with kids) one of us could claim the equivilant to the married mans allowance as it was years ago, so I used to do that. This was cabolished a few years ago and family tax credits came in. Parents make a joint claim and decide to either share the tax credit or one gets it, but there are thresholds so they might not get anything.
sorry about my fast "efficient typing"
Curiosity is correct. The taxation system you refer to ended many years ago, probably when child benefit became payable for the first child.

Tell your friends partner to contact the inland revenue and the benefits office for advice though.

There may be something he can claim.
There is no claim to be made through this in the way your'e describing. All men and women, whether married or single, with our without children have the same tax code. There are exceptions such as having a company car etc. but being married/having kids no longer allows you a higher tax code. Curiosity is correct in saying that what used to be the additional allowance through taxation, is now claimed through Family Tax Credits. If your friend is not already claiming tax credits as well as Child Benefit, he needs to contact the Inland Revenue.

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