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Why Was This Female Paedophile Not Sent To Jail?

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anotheoldgit | 16:35 Mon 23rd Jan 2017 | News
71 Answers
http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-4148038/PE-teacher-31-affair-15-year-old-schoolboy.html

If it had been a male teacher, I am sure that he would have been sentenced to a lengthy prison sentence, and quite rightly so.

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It is actually a good OP question Mr AOG, (I haven't read much of the article or thread) but what we really need to know is whether the police have arrested and / or formally interviewed the accused and then question why no charges were made. There is nowt in law that states you need a victims statement to investigate a person suspected of a criminal offence (take a...
20:39 Tue 24th Jan 2017
A male friend of mine was 14 when he having regular sex with a much older woman, he certainly didn't feel abused then and doesn't now, indeed he still boasts about it. Ok so she wasnt a teacher but I dare say this young lad probably feels that he has had his cake and eaten it and is still smiling!! I would have been at that age.

And no! I am not condoning what she has done!

Her career and reputation has been destroyed. I think she has paid a hefty price for what is most likely a victimless crime.
It isn't the victim who presses charges, it is the Police. However, if the victim has refused to give a statement, there is nothing the police can do. No evidence = no charge.
Question Author
dannyk13

/// If the schoolboy won't press charges then there is no evidence. ///

Since there appears to be no evidence as some have suggested, then where did National College for Teaching and Leadership, get their evidence from?

/// Ms Sharman was found guilty of unacceptable professional conduct and conduct that could bring the profession into disrepute by a panel of the National College for Teaching and
Leadership. ///

/// 'Based on the totality of the evidence the panel are satisfied there was an intimate and sustained relationship between Ms Sharman and Pupil A over an extended period.' ///

Perhaps Ms Sharman could be in for a substantial payout for defamation of character and wrongful dismissal?

AOG - Proof sufficient to satisfy an employer of gross misconduct sufficient to dismiss. and proof sufficient successfully to prosecute in a court of law are not the same thing.

The justice system obviously concluded that the evidence used to dismiss the teacher from her post was not sufficiently robust to stand up in court, and carry through to a conviction.

On that basis, a court case cannot proceed - since a realistic prospect of a conviction is needed before proceedings are commenced.
-- answer removed --
aog, they proceeded on the basis of the teacher's own admission. That was enough to get her banned. It might not have been enough to get her convicted in a court, however, where the standard of proof is high.
Question Author
jno

/// aog, they proceeded on the basis of the teacher's own admission. ///

I would have thought that the teacher's own admission would have been enough for the police to charge her also?
You are appearing to be particularly obtuse this morning, AOG.

The Teacher did not make an admission to the Police and a trial where the sole 'evidence' of her crime would be her own admission (which she would have had to be mad to have given) would been doomed to failure.
AOG , Yet again read the link!
She admitted to another teacher and to the boy's parents that she had had sex with him. That is very far from pleading guilty in court !
This only came to light because the boy attempted to blackmail her over the affair ! He was over 15 and hardly an 'innocent victim'
AOG - //I would have thought that the teacher's own admission would have been enough for the police to charge her also? //

Then you would have been wrong - because as advised, she didn't admit it to the police.
Ruddy hell ! ....is AOG still going on about this ?
Not since this morning, no.
//Within law enforcement in order to be classed as a paedophile the victim has to be 13 and under over that the abuser is not classed as a paedophile.

This has been explain to you several times AOG that I know of!//

Islay, where is this stated in law or law enforcement please?


1st search quick on line search

Met Police paedophile Unit

Who are paedophiles?
Paedophiles are individuals with a preferred sexual interest in children and they are the primary distributors, producers of child pornography and ...


Definition of paedophil - ia

paedophilia is a psychiatric disorder in which an adult or older adolescent experiences a primary or exclusive sexual attraction to prepubescent children.[
It is actually a good OP question Mr AOG, (I haven't read much of the article or thread) but what we really need to know is whether the police have arrested and / or formally interviewed the accused and then question why no charges were made.

There is nowt in law that states you need a victims statement to investigate a person suspected of a criminal offence (take a homicide offence for example where there is obviously no victim statement).

It is difficult though in these particular cases, no victim evidence then unlikely to proceed to prosecution.
Orderlimit - so more or less what everyone else has already said then.
No Andy, the two terms are slightly different. Regardless, its a good matter to query as AOG has done but we would need to know if the police got involved etc.
oops.

before we can ask why no prison sentence
Sorry, Andy, just to add, in my opinion, there probably would be sufficient evidence available in this case for a prosecution to have a good chance of succeeding in a conviction but difficult without the victim being on side and one who has not possibly suffered a great deal (but don't know). Hopefully the police did interview her and made the right decision.
Question Author
Orderlimit

Thanks for such a level headed post, hence my award of BA, that is actually what I was trying to get across, but others it seems find it more enjoyable to have a go at me.
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