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The Second World War

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SIRandyraven | 18:45 Thu 17th Jun 2021 | ChatterBank
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Just watching a drama where an Oxford lecturer has been called up to fight in the Second World War.
I was wondering how did people get paid for loss of earnings?
Myself I used to work in IT and was a decent salary and had commitments to match salary.
If I had been called up to fight would I have still been paid same salary by former employer and they were compensated by the government?
Bit like the Covid furlough in a way.
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I suppose it also depends on the rank that he served at.
Pay in the armed forces was fixed and unrelated to a person's former pay in civvy street. However married men did get additional pay which was, in theory at least, enough to feed and clothe their wives and children (as well as pay household bill, such as rent). However many regarded such additional pay as insufficient.

See the quotes from Hansard here:
https://www.britishmilitaryhistory.co.uk/docs-services-royal-army-pay-corps/
A big standard foot soldier was paid £107 a year equivalent to £7000 today
-- answer removed --
Eh what PP
I dont know the answer
PP, you know verey well that if you don't know the answer you MUST give your opinion. AB rule 27 subsection 3 clause B.
that is the AB version of Rice's theorem innit ?

you cant categorise every answer as known or unknown
because ( lets call it A )
" I dont know the answer" is false - if it is false - then "I dont know the answer" is false and so I do know the answer

and if I dont know the answer is true then "I dont know the answer is false " is false

so A is unclassifiable - and is an example of Rice's theorem.

I try to make my answers cogent and to the point
I know I am a bad puppy: I shouldnt do this
'I try to make my answers cogent and to the point'

Do you. really?

Try harder dear boy.
I doooooo - - I dooooooo
the usual suspects carp the whole time

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