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"downs" Etymology

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maurice | 06:30 Mon 19th Oct 2015 | Phrases & Sayings
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Can anyone give me an intelligent answer to a stupid-sounding question? I've always wondered why the North and South Downs are so called. Is it simply a question of perspective???!!!
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(answering my own q. as usual) Apparently it stems from an old word which also gave us "dune", so presumably the apparent contradiction (or paradox) is purely coincidental. Perhaps nevertheless someone can confirm!
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(continuation of monologue) It's OK now: all conformed by Wikipedia! (Will look first next time, I promise).
The full detail (from the OED):
"Etymology: Old English dún (feminine), hill = Old Dutch dúna (Middle Dutch dúne, Dutch duin, whence modern Low German düne sandhill, French dune). Supposed to be of Celtic origin: compare Old Irish dún hill, hill-fort, Welsh din, and place-names in -dūnum.

Since dúna must have been in use at an early date in the West Germanic dialects of Batavia and Lower Saxony, it is doubtful whether the word was brought by the Saxons from the continent, or adopted, after their settlement here, from the Britons; the former alternative is favoured by the exact correspondence in form and gender of the Old English and Old Dutch words, and by the fact that in local nomenclature Old English dún seems to have been confined to the Saxon area. It is, however, in English only that the word has given rise to an adverb and a preposition"
Better than Wikipedia, simply enter your UK library card number here for full access to the OED's website (which otherwise would cost you over £200 per year):
http://www.oed.com/loginpage
(Nearly all UK libraries subscribe to the system).
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Many thanx, Buenchico, for your quick & comprehensive reply! The last remark in that text surprised me: who would have thought the geographical meaning preceded the preposition/adverb use? Just shows, at least sometimes it's worth asking "stupid" questions! Thank you again! ( I can't use that link unfortunately as I no longer live in the UK).
Try entering 20127010469267 ;-)
I read an article in our company magazine many years ago which claimed that the origin of the adverb was eg, he's coming from adown", which became shortened to "he's coming down". I've seen no other evidence for this but it does sound feasible.
Good question mate .
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It worked, Buenchico! Shall now look forward to hours of browsing when another such q. crops up that I can't find an answer to anywhere else! You've been a real help!

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