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davidmarsden | 13:46 Tue 08th Dec 2020 | Law
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my daughter and her husband have rented a house from her former employer for twelve years.the house has been sold and the landlord(old one) says he paid the new landlord £600 that he said was arrears.my daughter has never had a rent book and the new landlord has stated he requires a month's rent in advance plus a deposit(unknown amount)the old landlord never registered a deposit so my daughter is expecting approx £1200 having to be paid must before Christmas.can the new landlord do this.

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it seems pretty normal that a landlord requires a deposit and a months rent in advance, but i expect the devil will be in the detail of the contract she had with the old landlord
The old landlord should transfer the original deposit to the new landlord.
The tenancy should be ongoing and rent is normally paid a month in advance so your daughter should be paying the same amount of money at the same time as usual and nothing more. The new landlord may tweak the contract and increase the rent but he will have to give reasonable notice and act in accordance with the law - he has in effect bought the rental contract as part of the sale.
sorry i read this q wrong - i thought you meant she has a twelve year tenancy (which i thought was odd!)
So is the old landlord saying the deposit is being used to pay the arrears?
If so the question is did she have arrears?
The new landlord is entitled to a deposit which would normally have been transferred but now appears to have been used therefore the new landlord wants a new deposit

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