Bigamy In The 1940S

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saxy_jag | 22:53 Sun 22nd Sep 2013 | Law
4 Answers
If someone committed bigamy in the 1940s, what would have been a typical judicial punishment?


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I still think two years...

it comes up on Heir Hunters a bit
Probably none, if "Who do you think you are?" is anything to go by! It seems to have been one of the great unreported crimes in the past, particularly in times of war and hardship. Men would forget to come home and then form new relationships. Divorce carried a stigma but the new woman expected to live a respectable married life, so social pressure rather required bigamy.
I have someone in my family tree who was divorced on the grounds of 'adulterous incest'.................which was interesting.
Hey Fred - you answer is a bit... Buddhist
on the grounds of : what is the sound of one hand clapping etc

clearly what is the usual punishment for bigamy when no one knows it has happened (OK one person really has to) ... answer : condign punishment in hell

is not really a helpful answer.

Bigamy like rape may well be unreported - but in those cases that are and proceed, I still think two years on conviction....

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Bigamy In The 1940S

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