SIGN UP

Knighthoods for All

Avatar Image
PeteR | 22:45 Thu 05th Sep 2002 | History
1 Answers
Did Charles I, in 1626, offer a knighthood to every man in the kingdom worth over �40 p.a.?

Answers

Only 1 answerrss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by PeteR. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Yes. It was a means of raising money - he revived an an old feudal tradition requiring every man who owned property generating a certain income, to become a knight. Then he sent out invitations which had such a short deadline that it was impossible to get to the knighthood ceremony - and then he fined people for not turning up. Pretty sneaky - more detailed info at http://bob-boynton.hypermart.net/stories/lastgasp.
html

Only 1 answerrss feed

Do you know the answer?

Knighthoods for All

Answer Question >>