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How Did The Enfranchisement Of Farm Land In 1865 Aid The Development Of The Land?

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Sellergarth | 15:10 Sun 23rd Mar 2014 | History
5 Answers
I know that I asked a question last year about `Enfranchisement` and I thought that I understood what it was all about, until I read the following and now I`m more confused than ever!
"The steady growth of Barrow had now brought into prominence the possibility of Newbarns fields being developed as building land, especially for the suburban type of villa house. The first move in this direction was made by William Lesh, who, by deed dated 25th February 1865, enfranchised the whole of his estates in Newbarns and Hawcoat".
What has enfranchising his land to do with selling it as building land? As he owned the land, but presumably let it tenant farmers, what was preventing him ceasing the tenancies and just selling the land?
I`v obviously missed something simple. Any clarification would be appreciated.
Thanks.
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Maybe there were parcels of land that were tenanted in different ways, for example some may have been ancient leases with odd rights attached to them, so by first bundling all the lot into one type of agreement then it would be easier to do what he wanted with the land.
16:00 Sun 23rd Mar 2014
Maybe there were parcels of land that were tenanted in different ways, for example some may have been ancient leases with odd rights attached to them, so by first bundling all the lot into one type of agreement then it would be easier to do what he wanted with the land.
Hoping this was of some use Sellergarth?
Question Author
Hi Mosaic,
I apologise for not acknowledging your answer before now, it was very remiss of me.
What you suggest seems quite logical, although I have just discovered the deed by William Lesh is in the local Archives so I will be able to see if the wording gives any indication as to his intentions. Thank you for taking the time to reply, it is appreciated.
I was surprised about the suggestion that there was a change in the type of ownership in 1865 - many y before the 'great reforms' of 1925. Law of property act
but that seems/may be the case

enfranchisement of a lease (seems to be) acquiring the freehold or extending it. Perhaps it comes from becoming a freeholder and therefore under the 1842 act a voter

see: http://www.landregistry.gov.uk/professional/guides/practice-guide-27

or google enfranchising a lease

The first Act on this is the 1967 act and that involves a tenant doing it (against the will of the leaseholder). Presumably you dont beed an Act if someone is doing it voluntarily.

The usual difference between a leaseholder and a freeholder is that a leaseholder wont do a damn thing, so enfranchising it, would be a first and necessary step towards development.
Question Author
Thanks Peter for taking the time to add the additional information.

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