Donate SIGN UP

Own house but separating

Avatar Image
PamelaM | 15:01 Fri 17th Jul 2009 | Family Life
4 Answers
I've just paid off my mortgage using the money gained from taking volentary redundancy.The house is in my name, and I've always paid the mortgage & 95% of all outgoings during a 6 year relationship with my partner. We have a 20 month old son together. If this relationship was to come to an end, would my partner be entitled to any of my assets?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by PamelaM. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Difficult to say, although if you can prove what payments you have made, it is unlikely. On the other hand, if your partner were to be the main carer for your son then that might make things different. You could try getting some advice from CAB, which is free, in the first instanc. But if you think your partner will turn nasty, you will need proper advice - you can usually get the first half-hour free from solicitors to enable you to decide what you will do next.

Good luck with it.
yep she will get 60 % of all your assets because she has to bring up the child sorry mate been there got the tee shirt rip off my back
This will be treated differently depending on whether you are married or not.

When a couple are not married then property laws are relevant and basically property belongs to the person named on the deeds. It is fairly complicated area of law though and you would really need to consult a lawyer to find out exactly where you stand. Also the law regarding cohabitants may change in the future.

If you are married all the assets held in sole and joint names minus any liabilities form the net value of assets to be shared. The 'pot' is then shared according to a check list of factors in s25 Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 and usually needs will come at the top of the list, or very near the top.
Hi, I had a similar situaiton though there wasnt a child involved so that probably does change things slightly.
My ex partner lived with me for years and paid only �250 a month towards bills/ mortgage etc. He was earning less than me so was happy with that. Some months he didnt pay if he was a little short, or near Christmas he often couldnt afford to pay....
Anyway, we split up in 2006 and when i sold MY flat (I bought it long before he moved in) he claimed back all the money he said he had paid me during the time we were together approx �9k! So in summary that means he lived rent free for 9 years and that is perfectly acceptable?!
Not only that but this only came to light on the morning I was moving house and I had 3 hours to find 9k or loose the house i was buying. I think they call that blackamail.
Due to the timescales i had to pay it otherwise risk being in breach of contract to the people i was selling to and buying from. What annoys me I was not given the change to present my evidence and just had to pay up. I never disputed that he paid the money, what i would disput is how much he did actually paid vs what he should have paid me and why he can get a full 'refund' when we split up and he moved out. He seemed to convieniantly foget the 6 months he couldnt work and i supported him fully and nver asked for a penny from him.

1 to 4 of 4rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Own house but separating

Answer Question >>