Donate SIGN UP

House For £12.000

Avatar Image
kloofnek | 20:02 Sat 08th Mar 2014 | Business & Finance
20 Answers
I have just been browsing house sales online and came across one around the corner from myself...lovely three bedroomed ,well maintained etc...for offers over £12.00O,obviously a mistake...now by law,if someone goes now and offers say..£12.500 it has to be sold to them for the advertised price...am I right?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 20 of 20rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by kloofnek. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
No. It's an invitation to treat not a binding offer, I think
No, they are asking for offers, they don't have to accept those offers.
'fraid not kloof. As I understand it it is an invitation to buy and can be withdrawn at any time.
Question Author
OK,supposing it was a straight forward price,not offers???
My answer is still the same.
No. It's an invitation to treat not a binding offer.
-- answer removed --
Question Author
When I finished art school I was window dresser for a large department store...I once made the awful error of underpricing a dress on display...it HAD to be sold for that when a customer asked to purchase it....needless to say I got a good telling off...didn`t happen again!!!
No it didn't. The price in the window was an invitation to treat not a binding offer.
There is a townhouse in a small ville near my French gaff that is for sale for 10,000 euros......
Question Author
Maybe things have changed since then...it is many years ago.
Nothing has changed since then. It's just that, rather than create a fuss with the purchasing customer, the store decided to sale it at the wrongly advertised price - and give you a rollocking.
A shop owner displaying their goods for sale is generally making an invitation to treat (Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain v Boots Cash Chemists (Southern) Ltd [1953] 1 QB 401). They are not obliged to sell the goods to anyone who is willing to pay for them, even if additional signage such as "special offer" accompanies the display of the goods. (But see bait and switch.) This distinction was legally relevant in Fisher v Bell [1961] 1 QB 394, where it was held that displaying a flick knife for sale in a shop did not contravene legislation which prohibited offering for sale such a weapon. The distinction also means that if a shop mistakenly displays an item for sale at a very low price it is not obliged to sell it for that amount.[2]
Question Author
OK I have obviously got it wrong.
-- answer removed --
Until the sale documents have been signed the vendor can withdraw the property from the market.
No - certainly not the for the transfer of land
transfer only becomes irreversible on exchange of contracts...


I was gonna say - its isnt the one with bullet holes in the bog door is it ?
In a shop you may have a point....

When I was in PCW for a streamer or pencil of something,
the manager said did you want one of these ?
and it was a £500 ctr for £199.
we advertised this in the Sunday papers and so Head Office says we have to sell ONE to keep the Trading Standards off us....
pricing is irrelevant, it's amazing how often this comes up. No kloofnek they did not have to sell the dress, they may have done so for good will not for legal reasons. Basically you do not have to sell anything to anyone for any reason and you do not even have to explain why.

1 to 20 of 20rss feed

Do you know the answer?

House For £12.000

Answer Question >>