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Anne Hathaway question

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Richard1966 | 20:35 Thu 20th May 2010 | Arts & Literature
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Anyone know why Anne Hathaway is not referred to as Anne Shakespear?

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She was widiwed on Shakespeare's death. Certainly in 17th century Scotland it was customary for a widow to revert to her maiden name - England may have had a similar custom? In addition she was (comparatively) wealthy in her own right and her cottage passed down in her family, not to the Shakespeares. This may be another reason for stressing her maiden name.
06:33 Fri 21st May 2010
Maybe in the same way Anne Boleyn and Jane Seymour etc... are referred to?
She was widiwed on Shakespeare's death. Certainly in 17th century Scotland it was customary for a widow to revert to her maiden name - England may have had a similar custom? In addition she was (comparatively) wealthy in her own right and her cottage passed down in her family, not to the Shakespeares. This may be another reason for stressing her maiden name.
She was quite a good author in her own right.

Everyone said that Anne did hathaway with words.
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