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Divorce

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duts54 | 16:26 Mon 04th Apr 2016 | Civil
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My wife and I have been married for 10 years , the first year we spent apart because she showed me a manipulative side to her. We have no children together and own no property together, could anyone cast any light on what % of my works pension she could be entitled to, the grounds for divorce could be around unreasonable behavior or somewhere in that area. I have already filed for divorce within the 6 or 7 years but came back and manipulated me into not pursuing proceedings , I don't know whether this has any bearing on things , but I never cancelled proceedings against her . This situation has really affected me mentally , especially when she thinks she can do anything to me because were married .
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You could just as easily be entitled to a % of her pension. There is no hard and fast rule.
16:46 Mon 04th Apr 2016
Is she financially dependent on you?
Question Author
No she works
It is very doubtful that she will be entitled to any of your pension. The grounds for divorce makes no difference whatsoever.
Question Author
I thought the general rule would be that she was entitled to a % , is that because no children are involved or property .
You could just as easily be entitled to a % of her pension. There is no hard and fast rule.

Question Author
Oh well I feel more confident regarding approaching a solicitor now :-)
Good luck. You don't need a solicitor, you could do it yourself.

Are you still living together?
Question Author
Yes , but I aren't interested in anything that we have together , the property is rented . I just feel the need to start all over again , especially as it turns out that I have a heart condition and the stress doesn't help .
Best to move out as soon as possible and get the ball rolling. It will be easier if you are living apart.
Question Author
Yes , that makes sense , thanks for your time :-)

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